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I'm studying Billingsley's convergence of probability measures, and wondering why the definition of "Relative compactness of a family of probability measures" reasonable.

In the discussion the set $X$ is always assumed to be a metric space, and let $\mathcal{P}(X)$ be the space of all Borel probability measures on $X$ equipped with weak convergence topology.

  • In Billingsley's textbook, a family of Borel probability measures $M\subset\mathcal{P}(X)$ is said to be relatively compact if every sequence in $M$ has a convergent subsequence with limit in $\mathcal{P}(X)$.

Here we also have relative compactness and sequential compactness for general topological spaces:

  • A set $A\subset X$ is relatively compact if $\bar{A}$ is compact.
  • A set $A\subset X$ is sequentially compact if every sequence in $A$ has a convergent subsequence with limit in $A$.

Billingsley's relative compactness is different from the relative compactness in general topology (and also from sequential compactness), so I cannot see why we say such families of measures are relatively compact. So far, I have found a related question, which assumes $X$ is a polish space.

https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/3640221/prokhorovs-theorem-the-statement-precompact-sequentially-compact-relativel

In that question user87690 argued that the term "relatively sequentially compact" is more appropriate. Also since in that question $X$ was assumed to be a polish space, sequential compactness is equivalent to compactness so that we can simply say "relatively compact". One problem for me is that $\mathcal{P}(X)$ is not always metrizable, although it is metrizable if $X$ is separable as polish spaces are.

So I may guess that, as user87690 suggested, "relatively compact" stands for "relatively sequentially compact", and one shortened the term because either we usually deal with metric spaces $X$ which are at least separable, or simply "relatively sequentially compact" is too long. But I'm still looking for more persuasive explanations.

Any answers will be appreciated. Thank you!

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    $\begingroup$ Here is what Billingsley writes in his booklet "Weak Convergence of Measures" after giving the same definition: "It is possible to metrize the space of probability measures on $S$ (see the remarks preceding Theorem 2.2), and $\Pi$ is relatively compact if and only if it has compact closure in this metric. It is not necessary to go into this matter, however, because the definition above makes good sense as it stands." $\endgroup$ Oct 4, 2020 at 8:47
  • $\begingroup$ He assumed $S$ is a separable and complete metric space throughout the section, but yes it seems more reasonable to say it's because $A$ is relatively compact if $S$ is separable. If $S$ is separable then $\mathcal{P}(S)$ is metrizable as it becomes a separable space. Then if $A$ is a relatively compact family of measures, $\bar{A}$ is sequentially compact (by diagonal argument), $\bar{A}$ is compact, and $A$ is relatively compact.. as we expect! Thank you. $\endgroup$
    – Hyeon Lee
    Oct 4, 2020 at 9:56
  • $\begingroup$ If I am not mistaken, if $X$ is $\sigma$-compact and metrisable, then the set $C_0(X)$ of continuous functions vanishing at infinity is separatable. Therefore, the weak* topology is metrisable on the unit sphere, which is exactly the set of probability measures. Moreover, the unit sphere is compact. Therefore, in this case, relative compactness and sequential relative compactness are equivalent.... I suspect that if $X$ is not $\sigma$-compact, the two terms may be different, but not sure. $\endgroup$
    – Nick S
    Feb 21 at 15:48

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Only a partial answer. An interesting result in this context is V.I. Bogachev, Measure Theory, Vol. 2, (2006), Th. 8.3.2. which in particular says that the set $\cal{P}_\tau(X)$ of all $\tau$-additive probability measures on $X$ is metrizable with the Levy-Prokhorov metric. If $\cal{P}_\sigma(X) \not= \cal{P}_\tau(X)$, $\cal{P}_\sigma(X)$ the set of $\sigma$-additve probability measures on $X$, then the weak topology is not metrizable. Further note that $\cal{P}_\sigma(X) = \cal{P}_\tau(X)$ is consistent in ZFC. So in this case both compactnes-criteria are equivalent. I don't know if it is consistent that both compactnes-criteria are not equivalent.

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